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220-1202 — 20 free practice questions

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Question 1

A technician needs to provide remote support for a legacy Linux-based operating system from their Windows laptop. The solution needs to allow the technician to see what the user is doing and provide the ability to interact with the user's session. Which of the following remote access technologies would support the use case?
  • A. VPN
  • B. VNC Correct
  • C. SSH
  • D. RDP

Explanation

VNC uses the platform-independent RFB protocol, which works at the framebuffer level on X11, Windows and macOS, and can share the user's existing graphical session so the technician sees and controls what the user sees. SSH gives a command-line session, not a view of the user's desktop. RDP is Windows-centric and normally opens a separate session rather than shadowing a Linux user's display. A VPN only provides a network tunnel, not remote control.

Question 2

A technician is attempting to join a workstation to a domain but is receiving an error message stating the domain cannot be found. However, the technician is able to ping the server and access the internet. Given the following information: ``` IP Address - 192.168.1.210 Subnet Mask - 255.255.255.0 Gateway - 192.168.1.1 DNS1 - 8.8.8.8 DNS2 - 1.1.1.1 Server - 192.168.1.10 ``` Which of the following should the technician do to fix the issue?
  • A. Change the DNS settings. Correct
  • B. Assign a static IP address.
  • C. Configure a subnet mask.
  • D. Update the default gateway.

Explanation

Domain join locates the domain controller through DNS (SRV records), and the workstation is using public resolvers 8.8.8.8 and 1.1.1.1 that know nothing about the internal domain. Pointing DNS at the internal server (192.168.1.10) fixes the lookup. The IP address, subnet mask and gateway are already correct, which is why the server can be pinged and the internet reached.

Question 3

A network technician notices that most of the company's network switches are now end-of-life and need to be upgraded. Which of the following should the technician do first?
  • A. Implement the change.
  • B. Approve the change.
  • C. Propose the change. Correct
  • D. Schedule the change.

Explanation

In change management the process starts with a request or proposal describing the change, its purpose and scope. The change board then reviews and approves it, after which it is scheduled and implemented. A technician cannot approve, schedule or implement a change that has not yet been proposed.

Question 4

MFA for a custom web application on a user's smartphone is no longer working. The last time the user remembered it working was before taking a vacation to another country. Which of the following should the technician do first?
  • A. Verify the date and time settings. Correct
  • B. Apply mobile OS patches.
  • C. Uninstall and reinstall the application.
  • D. Escalate to the website developer.

Explanation

Time-based one-time passwords are computed from the current time, so the phone and the server must agree on the clock within a small tolerance. Travelling across time zones, or a manually set clock, can push the phone's time outside that window and every code is rejected. Checking date, time and time zone is quick and non-destructive, so it comes before patching, reinstalling or escalating.

Question 5

Which of the following is found in an MSDS for a battery backup?
  • A. Installation instructions
  • B. Emergency procedures Correct
  • C. Configuration steps
  • D. Voltage specifications

Explanation

A material safety data sheet (now called a safety data sheet) describes the hazards of the materials in a product, such as battery chemicals, along with first aid, firefighting, spill and disposal procedures. Installation instructions, configuration steps and voltage specifications belong in the product manual or datasheet, not the MSDS.

Question 6

The screen of a previously working computer repeatedly displays an OS Not Found error message when the computer is started. Only a USB drive, a keyboard, and a mouse are plugged into the computer. Which of the following should a technician do first?
  • A. Run data recovery tools on the disk.
  • B. Partition the disk using the GPT format.
  • C. Check boot options. Correct
  • D. Switch from UEFI to BIOS.

Explanation

A connected USB drive often causes the firmware to try booting from it first, producing an OS Not Found error even though the internal disk is fine. Checking the boot options (boot order, or removing the USB drive) is the quick, non-destructive first step. Repartitioning destroys data, switching firmware mode can stop a working install from booting, and data recovery is premature.

Question 7

A security administrator teaches all of an organization's staff members to use BitLocker To Go. Which of the following best describes the reason for this training?
  • A. To ensure that all removable media is password protected in case of loss or theft Correct
  • B. To enable Secure Boot and a BIOS-level password to prevent configuration changes
  • C. To enforce VPN connectivity to be encrypted by hardware modules
  • D. To configure all laptops to use the TPM as an encryption factor for hard drives

Explanation

BitLocker To Go is the BitLocker feature for removable data drives such as USB flash drives, encrypting them and unlocking with a password or smart card, so data stays protected if the drive is lost or stolen. Secure Boot and BIOS passwords are firmware settings, VPN encryption is unrelated, and TPM-based encryption applies to the internal operating system drive rather than removable media.

Question 8

Which of the following is used to detect and record access to restricted areas?
  • A. Bollards
  • B. Video surveillance Correct
  • C. Badge readers
  • D. Fence

Explanation

Video surveillance (CCTV) both detects who enters a restricted area and keeps a recording that can be reviewed later as evidence. Badge readers control entry and log badge use, but they record only that a badge was presented, not who actually walked in or whether someone tailgated. Bollards and fences are physical barriers that deter or block access; they neither detect nor record it.

Question 9

An administrator received an email stating that the OS they are currently supporting will no longer be issued security updates and patches. Which of the following is most likely the reason the administrator received this message?
  • A. Support from the computer’s manufacturer is expiring.
  • B. The OS will be considered end of life. Correct
  • C. The built-in security software is being removed from the next OS version.
  • D. A new version of the OS will be released soon.

Explanation

When a vendor stops issuing security updates and patches for an OS, that OS has reached end of life (end of support). Running it afterward leaves new vulnerabilities unpatched, so it should be upgraded or replaced. Manufacturer hardware support expiring, removal of built-in security software or an upcoming release do not by themselves end the OS's security updates.

Question 10

Which of the following is the best way to distribute custom images to 800 devices that include four device vendor classes with two types of user groups?
  • A. Use xcopy to clone the hard drives from one to another.
  • B. Use robocopy to move the files to each device.
  • C. Use a local image deployment tool for each device.
  • D. Use a network-based remote installation tool. Correct

Explanation

A network-based remote installation tool (for example PXE boot with an image deployment server such as Microsoft Configuration Manager) lets one administrator push the right custom image to hundreds of devices over the network, with separate images or task sequences per vendor class and user group. Robocopy and xcopy only copy files and folders; they cannot deploy a bootable OS image or install drivers. A local image deployment tool run at each device would work but does not scale to 800 machines.

Question 11

Which of the following types of social engineering attacks sends an unsolicited text message to a user's mobile device?
  • A. Impersonation
  • B. Vishing
  • C. Spear phishing
  • D. Smishing Correct

Explanation

Smishing (SMS phishing) uses unsolicited text messages to trick the user into clicking a link, calling a number or revealing information. Vishing uses voice calls, spear phishing is a targeted attack usually sent by email, and impersonation is pretending to be someone else in person or by phone.

Question 12

A user reports some single sign-on errors to a help desk technician. Currently, the user is able to sign in to the company's application portal but cannot access a specific SaaS-based tool. Which of the following would the technician most likely suggest as a next step?
  • A. Reenroll the user's mobile device to be used as an MFA token.
  • B. Use a private browsing window to avoid local session conflicts. Correct
  • C. Bypass single sign-on by directly authenticating to the application.
  • D. Reset the device being used to factory defaults.

Explanation

The user can sign in to the portal, so the SSO identity and MFA are working; a failure to reach one SaaS app often comes from stale cookies, cached tokens or a conflicting session in the browser. Opening a private browsing window starts a clean session without cached data and is a quick, low-impact next step. Reenrolling MFA is unnecessary because sign-in works, bypassing SSO defeats the organisation's authentication controls, and a factory reset is far too drastic.

Question 13

A technician verifies that a malware incident occurred on some computers in a small office. Which of the following should the technician do next?
  • A. Quarantine the infected systems. Correct
  • B. Educate the end users.
  • C. Disable System Restore.
  • D. Update the anti-malware and scan the computers.

Explanation

CompTIA's malware removal procedure is: investigate and verify symptoms, quarantine infected systems, disable System Restore in Windows, remediate (update anti-malware and scan/remove), schedule scans and updates, enable System Restore and create a restore point, then educate the end user. Since the infection is already verified, the next step is to quarantine the infected systems so the malware cannot spread. Disabling System Restore, updating and scanning, and educating users all come later.

Question 14

Which of the following is a Linux command that is used for administrative purposes?
  • A. runas
  • B. cmcl
  • C. net user
  • D. su Correct

Explanation

su (substitute user) is a Linux command that runs a shell or command as another user, root by default, so it is used for administrative tasks. runas is the Windows equivalent, and net user is a Windows command for managing user accounts. cmcl is not a standard Linux administration command.

Question 15

A user recently installed an application that accesses a database from a local server. When launching the application, it does not populate any information. Which of the following command-line tools is the best to troubleshoot the issue?
  • A. ipconfig
  • B. nslookup
  • C. netstat Correct
  • D. curl

Explanation

The application gets its data from a database on a local server, so the technician should check whether the client actually has a connection to the database server's port. netstat shows active TCP connections, listening ports and their states (for example ESTABLISHED or SYN_SENT), which reveals whether the app is connecting. ipconfig only shows the local IP configuration, nslookup tests DNS name resolution, and curl tests URL-based (HTTP) transfers rather than a database connection.

Question 16

A small office reported a phishing attack that resulted in a malware infection. A technician is investigating the incident and has verified the following: - All endpoints are updated and have the newest EDR signatures. - Logs confirm that the malware was quarantined by EDR on one system. - The potentially infected machine was reimaged. Which of the following actions should the technician take next?
  • A. Install network security tools to prevent downloading infected files from the internet.
  • B. Discuss the cause of the issue and educate the end user about security hygiene. Correct
  • C. Flash the firmware of the router to ensure the integrity of network traffic.
  • D. Suggest alternate preventative controls that would include more advanced security software.

Explanation

The infection has been remediated, endpoints are updated and the affected machine was reimaged, so the remaining step in the CompTIA malware removal process is to educate the end user. Because the infection started with a phishing email, discussing the cause and teaching security hygiene addresses the root cause. Flashing router firmware has no link to a phishing-borne endpoint infection, and installing new network tools or suggesting more advanced software is unnecessary when the existing EDR already detected and quarantined the malware.

Question 17

Which of the following describes a vulnerability that has been exploited before a patch or remediation is available?
  • A. Spoofing
  • B. Brute-force
  • C. DoS
  • D. Zero-day Correct

Explanation

A zero-day is a vulnerability that attackers exploit before the vendor has released a patch or other remediation, so defenders have had zero days to fix it. Spoofing is impersonating a trusted source, brute force is guessing credentials by trying many combinations, and DoS is an attack that makes a service unavailable; none of these describes the timing of exploitation relative to a patch.

Question 18

A help desk technician is setting up speech recognition on a Windows system. Which of the following settings should the technician use?
  • A. Time and Language
  • B. Personalization
  • C. System
  • D. Ease of Access Correct

Explanation

In Windows 10, the switch to turn on Windows Speech Recognition is in Settings > Ease of Access > Speech (Windows key+U opens Ease of Access), and Windows 11 calls this area Accessibility, where voice access is set up. Time and Language > Speech is where the microphone and speech language are configured, which makes it a tempting choice, but the speech recognition feature itself is an accessibility feature. Personalization controls the appearance of the desktop, and System covers display, sound and power settings.

Question 19

A user receives a new personal computer but is unable to run an application. An error displays saying that .NET Framework 3.5 is required and not found. Which of the following actions is the best way to resolve this issue?
  • A. Resolve the dependency through the "Turn Windows features on or off" menu. Correct
  • B. Download the dependency via a third-party repository.
  • C. Ignore the dependency and install the latest version 4 instead.
  • D. Forward the trouble ticket to the SOC team because the issue poses a great security risk.

Explanation

On Windows 10 and Windows 11, .NET Framework 3.5 ships as an optional Windows component: open Turn Windows features on or off, select .NET Framework 3.5 (includes .NET 2.0 and 3.0), and Windows downloads it through Windows Update. Installing .NET Framework 4.x does not help because version 4 cannot run apps built for 1.1 through 3.5. Third-party repositories are an unsafe source, and a missing runtime is not a security incident for the SOC.

Question 20

An employee is using a photo editing program. Certain features are disabled and require a log-in, which the employee does not have. Which of the following is a way to resolve this issue?
  • A. License assignment Correct
  • B. VPN connection
  • C. Application repair
  • D. Program reinstallation

Explanation

Features that are locked behind a sign-in indicate that the application is running unlicensed or in a trial mode; assigning the employee a license for the software unlocks them. A VPN connection does not grant product entitlements, and repairing or reinstalling the program does not help because the program is working correctly but the user has no licensed account.

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