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SC-900 — 20 free practice questions

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Question 1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

Explanation

Statement 1 (No): Azure AD (now Microsoft Entra ID) is offered in several editions, Free, P1 and P2, and the premium editions add features such as Conditional Access, Identity Protection and Privileged Identity Management, so the editions do not include the same features. Statement 2 (Yes): A tenant can be managed from the Azure portal (and the Microsoft Entra admin center), as well as with PowerShell and Microsoft Graph. Statement 3 (No): Azure AD is a cloud-based identity service run by Microsoft; you do not deploy or manage any virtual machines to host a tenant.

Question 2

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence. Hot Area:

Explanation

The Microsoft Cloud Adoption Framework for Azure provides best practices from Microsoft employees, partners, and customers, along with tools and guidance to assist in an Azure deployment. This framework is specifically designed to provide proven guidance that accelerates cloud adoption journeys.

Question 3

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence. Hot Area:

Explanation

eDiscovery is used to identify, hold, and export electronic information that might be used in an investigation. This is the correct answer because eDiscovery tools are specifically designed for legal investigations and compliance purposes. Customer Lockbox is for approving Microsoft access to customer data, DLP is for preventing data leaks, and resource locks prevent accidental deletion.

Question 4

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence. Hot Area:

Explanation

Microsoft Intune is managed in the Microsoft Endpoint Manager admin center (now called the Microsoft Intune admin center, intune.microsoft.com), where administrators configure device enrollment, compliance policies, configuration profiles and apps. The Azure Active Directory admin center manages identities, the Microsoft 365 compliance center manages compliance solutions, and the Microsoft 365 Defender portal manages security; none of them is the Intune management console.

Question 5

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.

Explanation

Federation is used to establish a trust relationship between organizations. With federation, one organization trusts the identity provider of another for authentication, so users can access resources across organizational boundaries without separate credentials for each organization. Federation does not itself provide multi-factor authentication, synchronize user accounts, or create a VPN connection.

Question 6

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

Explanation

All three statements are correct (Yes). Microsoft Defender for Cloud's secure score improves when you: (1) Apply system updates to reduce vulnerabilities, (2) The score evaluates resources across multiple Azure subscriptions for comprehensive coverage, and (3) Enable MFA which is a critical security control. These are fundamental security practices that directly impact your security posture.

Question 7

Which score measures an organization's progress in completing actions that help reduce risks associated to data protection and regulatory standards?
  • A. Microsoft Secure Score
  • B. Productivity Score
  • C. Secure score in Azure Security Center
  • D. Compliance score Correct

Explanation

The Compliance score measures an organization's progress in completing actions that help reduce risks associated with data protection and regulatory standards. This score is specifically designed to track compliance-related activities, making it the most appropriate choice for this question.

Question 8

What do you use to provide real-time integration between Azure Sentinel and another security source?
  • A. Azure AD Connect
  • B. a Log Analytics workspace
  • C. Azure Information Protection
  • D. a connector Correct

Explanation

A connector in Azure Sentinel is specifically designed to enable real-time integration and data ingestion from various security sources into the Azure Sentinel environment, facilitating comprehensive monitoring and analysis.

Question 9

Which Microsoft portal provides information about how Microsoft cloud services comply with regulatory standard, such as International Organization for Standardization (ISO)?
  • A. the Microsoft Endpoint Manager admin center
  • B. Azure Cost Management + Billing
  • C. Microsoft Service Trust Portal Correct
  • D. the Azure Active Directory admin center

Explanation

The Microsoft Service Trust Portal provides information on how Microsoft cloud services comply with regulatory standards such as ISO. It is the central resource for audit reports, certifications and other compliance documentation. The Endpoint Manager and Azure AD admin centers are management consoles, and Cost Management + Billing deals with spending.

Question 10

In the shared responsibility model for an Azure deployment, what is Microsoft solely responsible for managing?
  • A. the management of mobile devices
  • B. the permissions for the user data stored in Azure
  • C. the creation and management of user accounts
  • D. the management of the physical hardware Correct

Explanation

In the shared responsibility model, the cloud provider is always responsible for the physical datacenter, physical network, and physical hosts in every service model (IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS). The customer always remains responsible for its data, devices (including mobile devices), and accounts and identities, which include creating user accounts and setting permissions on data. So Microsoft is solely responsible for managing the physical hardware.

Question 11

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

Explanation

Statement 1 (Yes): Verify explicitly is one of the three Zero Trust guiding principles: always authenticate and authorize based on all available data points, such as user identity, location, device health and data classification. Statement 2 (Yes): Assume breach is also a guiding principle: minimize the blast radius, segment access, use end-to-end encryption and use analytics to detect threats. Statement 3 (No): Zero Trust does not trust anything behind the corporate firewall. Instead of assuming that a firewall keeps the internal network safe, it treats every request as though it comes from an uncontrolled network and verifies it.

Question 12

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

Explanation

Statement 1 (Yes): Control is one of Microsoft's privacy principles: customers control their data and their privacy choices. Statement 2 (Yes): Transparency is one of Microsoft's privacy principles: Microsoft is transparent about data collection and use so customers can make informed decisions. Statement 3 (No): Shared responsibility is the cloud security model that divides duties between the provider and the customer; it is not one of Microsoft's privacy principles (control, transparency, security, strong legal protections, no content-based targeting, benefits to you).

Question 13

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence. Hot Area:

Explanation

Encrypting a file makes its data unreadable and unusable to unauthorized viewers. To read or use encrypted data it must be decrypted, which requires the appropriate secret key, so only viewers who have that key can read and use the data. Archiving, compressing and deduplicating change how data is stored, but none of them restrict who can read it by means of a key.

Question 14

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

Explanation

Statement 1 (Yes): A digital signature is created with the signer's private key, which only the signer holds. Statement 2 (Yes): Anyone who has the signer's public key can verify the signature, proving the document came from the signer and was not altered after signing. Statement 3 (No): Verification does not need the signer's private key; that key is never shared. Only the matching public key is used to verify the signature.

Question 15

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence. Hot Area:

Explanation

When users sign in to the Azure portal, they must first prove their identity through authentication. Only after Microsoft Entra ID has verified who the user is can authorization take place, which determines what actions and resources the authenticated user has access to. Permissions are assigned and evaluated after authentication, so 'assigned permissions' and 'authorized' come later, and 'resolved' is not a sign-in step.

Question 16

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence. Hot Area:

Explanation

Authorization is the process of determining whether a signed-in user can access a specific resource based on their permissions and roles. This ensures that only users with the appropriate rights are allowed to perform certain actions or access particular resources within a system.

Question 17

Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence. Hot Area:

Explanation

Azure AD business-to-business (B2B) collaboration, now called Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration, lets you invite users from partner organizations such as suppliers and vendors to access your apps and resources. Invited users are represented in your directory as guest users and sign in with their own credentials. Azure AD B2C is for customer-facing apps, while AD DS and forest trusts are on-premises Active Directory features.

Question 18

In the Microsoft Cloud Adoption Framework for Azure, which two phases are addressed before the Ready phase? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
  • A. Plan Correct
  • B. Manage
  • C. Adopt
  • D. Govern
  • E. Define Strategy Correct

Explanation

In the Microsoft Cloud Adoption Framework for Azure, the phases before 'Ready' are 'Define Strategy' and 'Plan'. These two stages set the foundational direction and detailed planning required before reaching the 'Ready' phase where organizations prepare their systems for cloud adoption.

Question 19

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

Explanation

Statement 1 (No): In SaaS the provider runs and maintains the application, including applying updates and service packs; the customer does not. Statement 2 (Yes): In IaaS the cloud provider is responsible for the physical datacenter, physical hosts and physical network; the customer manages the OS, applications and network controls on top. Statement 3 (Yes): Under the shared responsibility model, information and data, devices, and accounts and identities always remain the customer's responsibility in every deployment type (SaaS, PaaS, IaaS and on-premises).

Question 20

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

Explanation

Statement 1 (Yes): Azure AD Connect (now Microsoft Entra Connect) synchronizes on-premises Active Directory users and groups to Azure AD and configures the sign-in method, which is how hybrid identity is implemented. Statement 2 (No): Hybrid identity uses a single Microsoft 365 / Azure AD tenant connected to the on-premises Active Directory; no second tenant is needed. Statement 3 (Yes): All hybrid authentication methods (password hash synchronization, pass-through authentication and federation) depend on the on-premises AD DS identities being synchronized to Azure AD, so users have a common identity in both directories.

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