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SY0-701

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SY0-701 — 20 free practice questions

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Question 1

Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries?
  • A. Hacktivist
  • B. Whistleblower
  • C. Organized crime Correct
  • D. Unskilled attacker

Explanation

Of the actors listed, organized crime groups are the ones that work for money and have the resources and skills to carry out sophisticated attacks, so a foreign government can hire them as proxies to attack critical systems in other countries. Hacktivists are motivated by ideology and choose their own targets rather than working for hire. Whistleblowers are insiders exposing wrongdoing, and unskilled attackers lack the capability needed against critical infrastructure.

Question 2

Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?
  • A. Key stretching
  • B. Data masking
  • C. Steganography
  • D. Salting Correct

Explanation

Salting adds a random value to the input, such as a password, before it is hashed, so identical inputs produce different hashes and precomputed rainbow tables stop working. Key stretching runs the hash many times to slow brute-force attempts, but the extra random input itself is the salt. Data masking hides data from view, and steganography hides data inside other files; neither is used with hashing.

Question 3

An employee clicked a link in an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The employee entered the log-in information but received a “page not found” error message. Which of the following types of social engineering attacks occurred?
  • A. Brand impersonation
  • B. Pretexting
  • C. Typosquatting
  • D. Phishing Correct

Explanation

The employee received an email with a link to a fake site that collected their login credentials, then showed an error once the credentials were captured. That is phishing: a fraudulent email that tricks the recipient into revealing sensitive information. Brand impersonation and typosquatting can be techniques used inside a phishing campaign, but the question gives no detail about a look-alike domain, and pretexting relies on an invented scenario delivered through direct interaction.

Question 4

An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
  • A. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
  • B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25/32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
  • C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25/32 port 53
  • D. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Correct

Explanation

Each rule lists the source first and the destination second, and the firewall evaluates rules from the top. Option D first permits DNS (port 53) from the single host 10.50.10.25/32 to any destination, then denies DNS from every other source. Options A and C permit all DNS traffic in their first rule, so the deny that follows never takes effect, and option B uses 10.50.10.25 as the destination instead of the source.

Question 5

A data administrator is configuring authentication for a SaaS application and would like to reduce the number of credentials employees need to maintain. The company prefers to use domain credentials to access new SaaS applications. Which of the following methods would allow this functionality?
  • A. SSO Correct
  • B. LEAP
  • C. MFA
  • D. PEAP

Explanation

Single sign-on (SSO) lets employees use one set of credentials, here their domain credentials, to access many applications, including SaaS applications federated with the company's identity provider. MFA adds more authentication factors but does not reduce the number of credentials. LEAP and PEAP are EAP methods for wireless network authentication, not SaaS sign-in.

Question 6

Which of the following scenarios describes a possible business email compromise attack?
  • A. An employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive’s name in the display field of the email. Correct
  • B. Employees who open an email attachment receive messages demanding payment in order to access files.
  • C. A service desk employee receives an email from the HR director asking for log-in credentials to a cloud administrator account.
  • D. An employee receives an email with a link to a phishing site that is designed to look like the company’s email portal.

Explanation

Business email compromise impersonates a trusted leader, such as an executive, to trick an employee into sending money or making purchases, and urgent requests for gift cards or wire transfers are its typical form. Putting the executive's name in the display field is a common spoofing technique in these attacks. Demanding payment to unlock files describes ransomware. A fake email portal used to harvest credentials is credential phishing, and a request for administrator credentials is likewise aimed at stealing credentials rather than the direct financial fraud that characterizes BEC.

Question 7

A company prevented direct access from the database administrators’ workstations to the network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following should a database administrator use to access the database servers?
  • A. Jump server Correct
  • B. RADIUS
  • C. HSM
  • D. Load balancer

Explanation

A jump server (jump box) is a hardened host placed between network segments; administrators connect to it and then reach the restricted servers from there, so access can be controlled and monitored at one point. RADIUS provides centralized authentication but does not provide a path into the segment. An HSM stores and manages cryptographic keys, and a load balancer spreads traffic across servers.

Question 8

An organization’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. Which of the following should the organization deploy to best protect against similar attacks in the future?
  • A. NGFW
  • B. WAF Correct
  • C. TLS
  • D. SD-WAN

Explanation

A web application firewall inspects HTTP and HTTPS traffic to a web application and blocks exploit attempts aimed at the application, such as malformed or oversized input used to trigger a buffer overflow. An NGFW focuses on network and application identification across all traffic and is less specialized for web application exploits. TLS encrypts traffic but does nothing to stop malicious input, and SD-WAN manages WAN connectivity.

Question 9

An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users’ passwords. Which of the following should the administrator implement to prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future?
  • A. Multifactor authentication Correct
  • B. Permissions assignment
  • C. Access management
  • D. Password complexity

Explanation

Multifactor authentication stops this attack because a stolen or guessed password alone is no longer enough to sign in; the attacker would also need the second factor. Resetting passwords only fixes the current compromise. Password complexity makes guessing harder but does not help once a password is phished or reused, and permissions assignment and access management control what an account can do after sign-in, not whether the attacker can sign in.

Question 10

An employee receives a text message that appears to have been sent by the payroll department and is asking for credential verification. Which of the following social engineering techniques are being attempted? (Choose two.)
  • A. Typosquatting
  • B. Phishing
  • C. Impersonation Correct
  • D. Vishing
  • E. Smishing Correct
  • F. Misinformation

Explanation

The attacker pretends to be the payroll department, which is impersonation, and delivers the lure by text message, which is smishing (SMS phishing). Smishing is the more specific term for phishing over text, so it is the better answer than generic phishing. Vishing uses voice calls, typosquatting relies on misspelled domains, and misinformation is spreading false information rather than requesting credentials.

Question 11

Several employees received a fraudulent text message from someone claiming to be the Chief Executive Officer (CEO). The message stated: “I’m in an airport right now with no access to email. I need you to buy gift cards for employee recognition awards. Please send the gift cards to the following email address.” Which of the following are the best responses to this situation? (Choose two.)
  • A. Cancel current employee recognition gift cards.
  • B. Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training. Correct
  • C. Issue a general email warning to the company. Correct
  • D. Have the CEO change phone numbers.
  • E. Conduct a forensic investigation on the CEO’s phone.
  • F. Implement mobile device management.

Explanation

This is a smishing attempt using CEO impersonation and a gift-card request. The best responses are to warn all employees now with a general email so nobody acts on the message, and to add smishing to security awareness training so staff recognize it in the future. Cancelling gift cards, changing the CEO's number or examining the CEO's phone do not help, because the attacker never used the CEO's real phone, and mobile device management does not control texts sent from outside numbers.

Question 12

A company is required to use certified hardware when building networks. Which of the following best addresses the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware?
  • A. A thorough analysis of the supply chain Correct
  • B. A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy
  • C. A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs
  • D. An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors

Explanation

Counterfeit hardware enters through the supply chain, so a thorough supply chain analysis, verifying manufacturers, authorized distributors and the provenance of components, best addresses the risk before purchase. A right-to-audit clause lets the company inspect a vendor afterwards but does not by itself ensure genuine parts. An acquisition policy states intent without verifying sources, and penetration testing suppliers tests their networks, not the authenticity of the hardware they ship.

Question 13

Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?
  • A. Rules of engagement Correct
  • B. Supply chain analysis
  • C. Right to audit clause
  • D. Due diligence

Explanation

The rules of engagement define the terms of a penetration test: scope, targets, permitted techniques, timing, contacts and how findings are handled. A right-to-audit clause gives a customer the right to audit a vendor, supply chain analysis evaluates suppliers, and due diligence is the assessment of a party before entering an agreement.

Question 14

A penetration tester begins an engagement by performing port and service scans against the client environment according to the rules of engagement. Which of the following reconnaissance types is the tester performing?
  • A. Active Correct
  • B. Passive
  • C. Defensive
  • D. Offensive

Explanation

Port and service scans send traffic directly to the target systems, which makes them active reconnaissance. Passive reconnaissance gathers information without interacting with the target, for example from public records or OSINT. Defensive and offensive are not reconnaissance types.

Question 15

Which of the following is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure?
  • A. IRP
  • B. DRP Correct
  • C. RPO
  • D. SDLC

Explanation

A disaster recovery plan (DRP) documents how an organization restores systems, data and services after a failure, including roles, priorities and restore procedures. An incident response plan (IRP) covers detecting and handling security incidents, the recovery point objective (RPO) is only a target for acceptable data loss used within the DRP, and the SDLC governs software development.

Question 16

Which of the following vulnerabilities is associated with installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository?
  • A. Jailbreaking
  • B. Memory injection
  • C. Resource reuse
  • D. Side loading Correct

Explanation

Side loading is installing applications from outside the manufacturer's approved app store or repository, which bypasses the vendor's vetting and can introduce malware. Jailbreaking removes operating system restrictions and often enables side loading, but it is not itself the act of installing outside the store. Memory injection and resource reuse are unrelated vulnerabilities.

Question 17

A security analyst is reviewing the following logs: ``` [10:00:00 AM] Login rejected - username administrator - password Spring2023 [10:00:01 AM] Login rejected - username jsmith - password Spring2023 [10:00:01 AM] Login rejected - username guest - password Spring2023 [10:00:02 AM] Login rejected - username cpolk - password Spring2023 [10:00:03 AM] Login rejected - username fmartin - password Spring2023 ``` Which of the following attacks is most likely occurring?
  • A. Password spraying Correct
  • B. Account forgery
  • C. Pass-the-hash
  • D. Brute-force

Explanation

The log shows one common password, Spring2023, being tried against many different usernames within a few seconds, which is the pattern of password spraying: a single likely password is tried across many accounts to avoid per-account lockout. A brute-force attack would instead try many passwords against the same account. Pass-the-hash reuses a captured password hash rather than submitting a plaintext password, and account forgery is not a login attack pattern shown here.

Question 18

An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?
  • A. Secured zones
  • B. Subject role Correct
  • C. Adaptive identity
  • D. Threat scope reduction

Explanation

In the CompTIA Security+ Zero Trust model, the data plane covers the subject or system requesting access, the implicit trust zones it moves through, and the policy enforcement point, so evaluating the subject's role relates to the data plane. Adaptive identity and threat scope reduction are listed under the control plane, along with policy-driven access control, the policy engine and the policy administrator, which make the access decisions rather than carry the traffic.

Question 19

An engineer needs to find a solution that creates an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. Which of the following would be the best solution?
  • A. RDP server
  • B. Jump server Correct
  • C. Proxy server
  • D. Hypervisor

Explanation

A jump server is a hardened host that administrators must connect to first before they can reach internal systems, adding a controlled, monitored layer between users and internal resources. A proxy server mainly brokers and filters client web traffic rather than gating administrative access to internal hosts. An RDP server exposes remote desktop access itself, and a hypervisor hosts virtual machines; neither adds an access-control layer in front of internal resources.

Question 20

A company’s web filter is configured to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. Which of the following search strings should an analyst employ to prohibit access to non-encrypted websites?
  • A. encryption=off
  • B. http:// Correct
  • C. www.*.com
  • D. :443

Explanation

Unencrypted websites are served over plain HTTP, so their URLs begin with the scheme http://, and blocking that string denies access to non-encrypted sites while leaving https:// URLs untouched. Port 443 is the HTTPS port, so blocking :443 would block encrypted traffic instead. encryption=off is not a standard URL component, and www.*.com would match encrypted and unencrypted sites alike.

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